It’s vs. Its: Why?
29 Mar
I think this is something we all know even though a lot of us inadvertently slip up from time to time. Â You use “it’s” only to denote “it is”. Â That’s it. Â Unlike almost every single other word in the English language, you do not add an apostrophe to “its” to denote possession.
Yet, where did this odd exception come from? Â Why do you not add an apostrophe to “its” to show possession? Â It really doesn’t make sense whatsoever, which is why so many people mess it up. Â I spent a little bit of time trying to figure out the reason why, but came up with nothing.
My own personal theory is that since the word ‘it’ is gender neutral and almost always an object, something referred to as ‘it’ cannot philosophically possess anything. Â Thus, saying something like “It’s leaf,” is a logical fallacy since while the leaf is on the tree, the tree does not own the leaf.
Any other theories out there, or does someone know the reason why ‘its’ has no apostrophe when used to denote possession?
